what minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at manchester airport

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1. (Refer to Figure 25, area 7.) The airspace overlying McKinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

A. 2,900 feet MSL. B. ii,500 anxiety MSL. C. 700 feet AGL.

Figure 25

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ii. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an shipping within Class D airspace are

A. 500-pes ceiling and 1 mile visibility. B. ane,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. C. clear of clouds and two miles visibility.

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3. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation inside Class C airspace?

A. Ii-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. B. Ii-fashion radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME. C. Two-manner radio communications equipment, a 4096-lawmaking transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

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4. The vertical limit of Class C airspace higher up the chief airport is normally

A. one,200 feet AGL. B. 3,000 feet AGL. C. 4,000 feet AGL.

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5. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to wing no lower than

A. 1,000 feet AGL. B. ii,000 feet AGL. C. iii,000 feet AGL.

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half dozen. The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A. iv nautical miles. B. 6 nautical miles. C. 8 nautical miles.

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7. Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

A. Landing at an airport with an operating control tower. B. Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. C. Flying under the shelf of Grade C airspace.

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8. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while inside Class D airspace when the visibility is

A. less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than i,000 feet. B. at to the lowest degree ane mile and the aircraft tin remain clear of clouds. C. at least 3 miles and the shipping can remain clear of clouds.

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9. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

A. 1,300 anxiety AGL. B. 1,300 feet MSL. C. i,700 feet MSL.

Figure 23

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10. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, simply less than 10,000 anxiety MSL, the minimum distance beneath clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. ane,500 anxiety.

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11. (Refer to Figure 25, area four.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) northward-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

A. at the surface. B. 3,200 feet MSL. C. iv,000 feet MSL.

Effigy 25

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12. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway beneath 10,000 anxiety MSL is

A. remain clear of clouds. B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and two,000 feet horizontally.

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xiii. I of the purposes for issuing a Temporary Flight restriction (TFR) is to

A. denote Parachute Jump Areas. B. protect public figures. C. identify Aerodrome Advisory Areas.

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14. The airspace arrangement designations used throughout the United States

A. makes our airspace organization more complex than information technology is in other countries. B. standardizes airspace classifications with other countries. C. separates all IFR and VFR operations.

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xv. The purpose of Military Training Routes, charted every bit VFR Military Training Routes (VR) and IFR Military Preparation Routes (IR) on sectional charts, is to ensure the greatest practical level of safety for all flying operations and to allow the armed forces to bear

A. low altitude, high-speed training. B. radar instrument training. C. air-to-air refueling training.

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16. With certain exceptions, Form E airspace extends upwardly from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

A. 10,000 anxiety MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C. 18,000 feet MSL.

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17. During operations inside controlled airspace at altitudes of less than ane,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A. 1,000 feet. B. 1,500 feet. C. 2,000 feet.

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18. Unless otherwise authorized, two-manner radio communications with Air Traffic Command are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports

A. regardless of weather condition conditions. B. only when weather weather are less than VFR. C. within Class D airspace only when weather weather are less than VFR.

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xix. (Refer to Effigy 26, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such equally Devils Lake Due east MOA?

A. High volume of pilot grooming or an unusual type of aerial activity. B. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. C. Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as arms firing, aeriform gunnery, or guided missiles.

Figure 26

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20. (Refer to Figure 21, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect forth IR 644?

A. IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in backlog of 250 knots. B. VFR training flights above ane,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots. C. Musical instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in backlog of 150 knots.

Effigy 21

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21. An airport'southward rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A. in that location are obstructions on the aerodrome. B. that weather at the drome located in Form D airspace is beneath basic VFR weather minimums. C. the Air Traffic Command tower is not in functioning.

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22. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The twenty-four hours VFR visibility and deject clearance requirements to operate over the boondocks of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

A. 3 miles and articulate of clouds. B. ane mile and 1,000 feet in a higher place, 500 feet below, and 2,000 anxiety horizontally from clouds. C. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

Figure 26

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23. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B chief aerodrome from the surface upward to 10,000 anxiety MSL must be equipped with

A. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver. B. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations. C. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

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24. What are the minimum requirements for plane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

A. The aeroplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace. B. The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an distance reporting transponder. C. The pilot must be instrument rated, and the plane must exist IFR equipped.

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25. (Refer to Figure 22.) What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements in an aeroplane at night when conducting takeoffs and landings at Shoshone Canton Airport (Surface area 3) if the pattern altitude is 1,000 anxiety AGL?

A. three SM visibility and articulate of clouds. B. 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within half mile of the airdrome. C. Remain articulate of clouds and operate at a speed that allows adequate opportunity to encounter other traffic and obstructions in time to avert a standoff.

Figure 22

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26. What is the minimum weather condition condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

A. 1 mile flight visibility. B. 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling. C. 3 miles flying visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.

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27. All operations within Form C airspace must be in

A. accordance with instrument flight rules. B. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. C. an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Way C encoding capability.

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28. During operations inside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 anxiety AGL, but less than x,000 feet MSL, the minimum altitude above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet.

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29. The VFR pilot flying in Class Yard airspace

A. has tighter cloud and visibility restrictions because IFR shipping flying in Class M airspace practise not have air traffic control service. B. has no cloud and visibility restrictions because IFR operations are prohibited in Class Grand airspace. C. has reduced deject and visibility restrictions because it'south unlikely that IFR traffic volition be operating in Class G airspace.

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30. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flying operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 4 miles.

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31. (Refer to Figure 25, surface area 4.) The airspace straight overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

A. Class B airspace to ten,000 anxiety MSL. B. Class C airspace to five,000 feet MSL. C. Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

Effigy 25

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32. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at dark at less than 700 feet AGL are

A. 3 miles and one,000 anxiety above, 500 feet below, and two,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B. one mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and two,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. C. iii miles and clear of clouds.

Figure 22

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33. A not-tower satellite airdrome, within the same Class D airspace equally that designated for the principal airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

A. satellite airport's UNICOM. B. associated Flight Service Station. C. primary drome's command belfry.

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34. (Refer to Figure 25, area ii.) The floor of Grade B airspace at Air Park-Dallas Airport is

A. at the surface. B. 3,000 feet MSL. C. 3,100 feet MSL.

Effigy 25

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35. (Refer to Effigy 71, area 8.) What is the minimum visibility required under VFR for takeoff from the Auburn Airdrome at sunrise?

A. iii Statute Miles. B. 5 Statute Miles. C. 1 Statute Mile.

Figure 71

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36. The minimum flying visibility required for VFR flights in a higher place ten,000 feet MSL and more 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

A. one mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

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37. The ceiling of Class D airspace is

A. listed in the Chart Supplement in feet MSL and AGL. B. shown on the sectional nautical chart in feet AGL. C. shown on the sectional chart in anxiety MSL.

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38. During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 anxiety MSL, the minimum altitude above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. one,500 anxiety.

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39. (Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Aerodrome at one,200 feet AGL are

A. 3 miles and 1,000 anxiety above, 500 feet below, and two,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B. 1 mile and clear of clouds. C. 1 mile and i,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 anxiety horizontally from each deject.

Figure 22

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40. (Refer to Figure 20 surface area four.) What hazards to shipping may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

A. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. B. Military machine training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flying maneuvers. C. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Figure xx

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41. (Refer to Figure xx, area one.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

A. Style C transponder and omnireceiver. B. Manner C transponder and two-mode radio. C. Manner C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.

Figure 20

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42. Two-fashion radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to inbound which form airspace?

A. Course C. B. Class Due east. C. Course K.

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43. What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation inside Class B airspace?

A. 2-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. B. 2-manner radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. C. Two-fashion radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

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44. What minimum airplane pilot certification is required for functioning within Class B airspace?

A. Recreational Airplane pilot Certificate. B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Airplane pilot Document with appropriate logbook endorsements. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

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45. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a War machine Operations Area (MOA)?

A. Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. C. Practice extreme caution when military activity is existence conducted.

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46. (Refer to Figure 26, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport (8J7).

A. Class G airspace - surface upwards to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but non including 18,000 feet MSL. B. Class G airspace - surface upwards to but not including 18,000 anxiety MSL. C. Class K airspace - surface up to but non including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to fourteen,500 anxiety MSL.

Effigy 26

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47. Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control belfry crave the ceiling and visibility to be at least

A. i,000 feet and 1 mile. B. 1,000 feet and three miles. C. ii,500 anxiety and three miles.

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48. Under which conditions may a pilot fly under VFR within sixty nautical miles of the DCA VOR in Washington, D.C.?

A. None. B. Only if the airplane pilot has completed special awareness preparation and filed a flying programme. C. Every bit long every bit the airplane pilot has completed special sensation training and remains clear of the SFRA.

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49. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or beneath during daylight hours?

A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile visibility, 500 anxiety beneath, i,000 feet above, and ii,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

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fifty. No person may take off or state an shipping under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

A. flight visibility at that airport is at least ane mile. B. footing visibility at that airport is at to the lowest degree 1 mile. C. ground visibility at that airport is at to the lowest degree iii miles.

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51. The normal radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is commonly

A. 10 nautical miles. B. xxx nautical miles. C. 20 nautical miles.

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52. For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

A. 1,000 feet. B. 2,000 feet. C. i mile.

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53. You know when looking at a chart that the flooring of Grade E airspace is 700 anxiety AGL when information technology's inside

A. the fuzzy side of the bluish vignette. B. the fuzzy side of the magenta vignette. C. the magenta dashed line.

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54. Flying through a restricted area should not be achieved unless the pilot has

A. filed an IFR flight plan. B. received prior authorization from the decision-making bureau. C. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

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55. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Grade D airspace but

A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B. when the associated command tower is in operation. C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in performance.

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56. (Refer to Figure 78.) What are the bones VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

A. 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet higher up the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds. B. 0 statute miles, clear of clouds. C. 1 statute mile, articulate of clouds.

Effigy 78

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57. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A. Individual Pilot Certificate or Student Airplane pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B. Recreational Pilot Document. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an musical instrument rating.

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58. An operable 4096-lawmaking transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

A. Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Grade B master drome. B. Class D airspace. C. Class E airspace below 10,000 anxiety MSL.

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59. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the main airport. C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

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threescore. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Course E airspace extending upward from

A. 700 anxiety in a higher place the surface up to and including 17,999 anxiety MSL. B. 1,200 feet to a higher place the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. C. the surface upwards to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

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